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The Rapture is a fallacy (video-photo)

posted by fezik82(R), Ohio, 08.23.2015
(edited by fezik82 on 08.28.2015)

I have been thinking about the Rapture a lot lately, and suddenly I am noticing things that I just never noticed before! I'm completely open to any counter arguments, I haven't even completely wrapped my mind around what I'm about to say!

One thing that I feel is extremely important goes back to the Jehovah's witnesses. They refer to the second coming merely by the Greek "parousia" which they describe as an invisible coming, it is one that they believe is recognized only by the "nous" (eyes of understanding) which is restricted to those entrusted with the Holy Spirit. I spent years finding this absolutely ridiculous because I felt that they were confusing it with the second coming.. well, technically they are.. but they would not find so many believers if there weren't actually two comings described in the Bible. For instance, the most common point against the witness' theory here is that at THE second coming, "every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him" (Revelation 1:7).. those who pierced Him are unlikely be those who are entrusted with the Holy Spirit, therefore this does not describe an invisible coming recognized only through spiritual understanding. But! What's just absolutely astounding is what Christ told the disciples:

"Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom." (Matthew 16:28)

So some must have seen the Son of Man coming in His Kingdom in biblical times, but this could not be the second coming because there is no documentation that every eye saw Him. As a matter of fact, when Stephen preached to the Jews.. they got irate, but they only got irate. It wasn't Stephen's preaching that got him killed, it wasn't until he looked up and claimed to have seen just what Christ predicted:

But he, being full of the Holy Spirit, looked up steadfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing on the right hand of God, And said, Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of man standing on the right hand of God. (Acts 7:55-56)

They undoubtedly would not have stoned him if they had seen Christ, too. This is just one evidence of a coming of Christ which is not visible to all.. even those who were standing right there beside Stephen did not see this arrival, or "coming" of Christ. Could the vision of Stephen explain the "left behind" scenario? Matthew 24:36-41:

But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. But as the days of Noe were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark, And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. Then shall two be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left. Two women shall be grinding at the mill; the one shall be taken, and the other left.

We know that Jesus returned for Stephen, is it possible that He returns for all of His sheep? Really... who grinds at the mill anymore? Maybe this is just telling us that we must always be prepared for death?

I've never laid all of this out before, not outside of my head. =) People who support the "rapture" seem to almost unanimously believe that Jesus' return is the beginning of the 1,000 year reign. The entire NT disputes this, but the most quick and to the point areas that I can think of are as follows:

1) Christ in His discourse in Matthew 12:22-37 is painfully clear that the Kingdom of God was already in existence. He was reigning and therefore able to drive out Satan by the Spirit of God. This is also most clear in the fact that the disciples had control over the demons, Satan's bound... we may now live in peace simply by calling upon the Name of Jesus.

2) Paul says that Christ is not returning (in what seems to be the visible return) in order to reign.. but in order to retire His reign! In 1 Corinthians 15:21-28, he says Christ will come "Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet" (verses 24-25). He is not returning for the 1,000 year reign.. again, that reign is now.

3) Ephesians 1:20-23 (just one ex.), Christ already obtained His inherited position of authority far above all other principalities and powers.. He was raised up to the heavenly realm and seated at the right hand of the Father.

4) The disciples were already raised up into the heavenly Kingdom in their time.. they were reigning with Christ:

Ephesians 2:5 Even when we were dead in sins, [God] hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved;) 6And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus:


With all of this being said, there are other points that can't be overlooked when trying to justify this "rapture". For instance, as you noted in your article that you attached, many believe the Rapture to be the precursor to the tribulation... but I believe that the tribulation began at the moment that Christ was raised from the dead. John claimed back in the first century that he was "a companion in the tribulation" (Revelation 1:9). Acts 14:22, they must suffer hardships in order to enter the Kingdom of God... 2 Cor. 1:7, we must all share in the sufferings. The tribulation is now.

Also, in 1 Thessalonians 4:17, we find that Paul included himself in the group of the alive in Christ who shall be caught up in the clouds:

Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.

In verse 14, we find that when Christ returns to snatch these away, He is bringing back those who fell asleep in Him. So.. He's bringing from heaven all of those who fell asleep in Him (the spirits?) to be united to those (including Paul!) who are "alive in Him". I can't be sure, but I can't help but wonder if this is a greater description of the Valley of Dry Bones? In the OT, "breath" is synonymous with "spirit".. they are interchangeable:

The hand of the LORD was upon me, and carried me out in the spirit of the LORD, and set me down in the midst of the valley which was full of bones, And caused me to pass by them round about: and, behold, there were very many in the open valley; and, lo, they were very dry. And he said unto me, Son of man, can these bones live? And I answered, O Lord GOD, thou knowest. Again he said unto me, Prophesy upon these bones, and say unto them, O ye dry bones, hear the word of the LORD. Thus saith the Lord GOD unto these bones; Behold, I will cause breath to enter into you, and ye shall live: And I will lay sinews upon you, and will bring up flesh upon you, and cover you with skin, and put breath in you, and ye shall live; and ye shall know that I am the LORD.

So I prophesied as I was commanded: and as I prophesied, there was a noise, and behold a shaking, and the bones came together, bone to his bone. And when I beheld, lo, the sinews and the flesh came up upon them, and the skin covered them above: but there was no breath in them. Then said he unto me, Prophesy unto the wind, prophesy, son of man, and say to the wind, Thus saith the Lord GOD; Come from the four winds, O breath, and breathe upon these slain, that they may live. So I prophesied as he commanded me, and the breath came into them, and they lived, and stood up upon their feet, an exceeding great army. (Ezekiel 37:1-10)

Maybe I read too much into this.. but there's still the question of why Paul included himself in this group that was snatched up? Maybe if not a description of the resurrection of the flesh, it's describing individual deaths throughout Christian history? It's worth pointing out that the time or the hour which nobody knows was explained in a prophecy of the destruction of the Temple, and of that time, they were to pray that their flight did not occur on a Sabbath. For what reason? Maybe because it didn't necessarily describe a far distant future? In verse 16, those who were in Judea were to flee to the mountains.. and Josephus described this event happening. I'm not suggesting that I know what this means.. some input would be nice!

I didn't mean to ramble on so much.. I'll save any other thoughts for another time..

---
I asked The Lord how much He loved me

He stretched out His arms and said, "this much"

Then He died for me

 


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